is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

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03-12-2015
Mathematics

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is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

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marisofi16 marisofi16 · Answer 1 · 2015-12-13T03:18:34+01:00

marisofi16 marisofi16

13-12-2015

Yes, it could be equal, but it doesn't occur that often. For example, the LCM of 2 and 1 is 2. So could happen but you don't see it that a often. Only when you want to find the LCM of another number and 1.

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